Showing posts with label ESIC Pharmacist Exam Solved Question Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ESIC Pharmacist Exam Solved Question Paper. Show all posts

Tuesday, 4 February 2020

GPAT Exam 2020 Question Paper & Answer Key pdf

Download GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST (GPAT) Exam 2020  Question Paper PDF . The Test will now be conducted by the NTA . The Exam was Held on 28 January 2020 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys  from Our Website . Download Link are given below


GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST (GPAT) is a National level entrance examination for entry into M.Pharm programmes.





➧Download GPAT Question Paper 2020 PDF -







Date of Exam‎: ‎28 January 2020


Mode of Exam‎: ‎Computer-Based i.e. Online


Exam level‎: ‎National Level Exam


Duration: 3 Hours



➧Download GPAT Question Paper 2020 PDF - 







Eligibility for GPAT 2020

  • Applicant must be a citizen of India.
  • They must be Bachelor's degree holders in Pharmacy (4 years after 10+2, including lateral entry candidates).
  • Those who are in the final year of B. Pharmacy course are also eligible for appearing in GPAT exam.
  • B.Tech (Pharmaceutical and fine chemical technology) / Equivalent Students are not eligible to appear for GPAT examination.



➧Download GPAT Question Paper 2020 PDF - 







TEST PATTERN: 
  • The medium of Question Paper shall be in English only. 
  • GPAT is an online computer-based test of 3 hours duration with 125 objective type questions.
  • There are 4 marks for a correct answer. There shall be negative marking for wrong answers, for each wrong answer 1 mark shall be deducted. 
  • GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST (GPAT) is a national level entrance examination for entry into M.Pharm programmes. Till 2018, it was conducted by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) every year as per the directions of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India. The Test will now be conducted by the NTA


➧Download GPAT Question Paper 2020 PDF - 




  • This test facilitates institutions to select suitable Pharmacy graduates for admission into the Master's (M.Pharm) program. 
  • The GPAT is a three hour computer based online test which is conducted in a single session.
  • The GPAT score is accepted by all AICTE-Approved Institutions/University Departments/Constituent Colleges/Affiliated Colleges. 
  • A few scholarships and other financial assistance in the field of Pharmacy are also given on the basis of the GPAT score.




Download GPAT Question Paper 2019 As Pdf  





Download Answer Key Pdf

Monday, 15 July 2019

ESIC Pharmacist Exam 2014 Solved Question Paper





1. Common side effect of non - Steroidal anti inflammatory drug is _____
A. Sedation
B. Kidney damage
C.Headache
D. Ulceration



2. _______ is a tricyclic Antidepressant drug
A. Amitriptyline
B. Imipramine
C. Phenelzine
D. Triimipramine



3. _________ is Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
A. Imipramine

B. Tranylcypromine
C. Lithium citrate
D. Amitriptyline



4. Parkinson occurs due to _____
A. Depletion of dopamine
B. Excess of dopamine
C. Excess of epinephrine
D. Depletion of epinephrine

5. Mother clove is ______
A. Fruit
B. Stalk
C. Seed
D. Mature flower



6. Cardiac glycoside possess basic nucleus of
A. Tropane
B. Triterpene
C. Quinoline
D. Cyclopenteno phenanthrene



7. Colchicine is commonly known as _______
A. Monkshood
B. Ma Huang
C. Autumn crocus
D. Finger flower



8. Natural fibre gives test for sulphur is _______
A.Wool
B. Cotton
C. Silk
D. Jute



9. _______ leaf is to be dried at 60°C immediately after collection
A. Digitalis
B. Senna
C. Datura
D. Hyoscyamus



10. ____ is a carbohydrate containing drug obtained from Marine source
A. Agar
B. Honey
C. Acacia
D. Ispaghula


11. Dihydrofolate reductase is inhibited by _____
A. Trimethoprim
B. Pyrimethamine

C. Methotrexate
D. All of above


12. _____ is used as an adulterant of Benzoin
A. Myrrh
B. Colophony
C. Asafoetida
D. Balsum


13. _____ is used as a mosquito repellent
A. Punarrnava
B. Hyoscyamus
C. Pyrethrum
D. Ephedra


14. Rifampicin act by
A. Binding with 30S ribosomes
B. Binding with 50S ribosomes
C. Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. Inhibition of Topoisomerase enzyme


15. Myopia is characterised by one of following
A. Person can see the near objects perfectly
B. Persons find difficulty in seeing the near objects
C. Persons can see the far objects perfectly
D. Persons can see near and far both objects with difficulty


16. ____ is long acting insulin
A. Globulin Zinc insulin
B. Insulin Zinc suspension
C. Protamine Zinc Insulin suspension
D. Isophane Insulin suspension

  
17. Which of the following disease is not spread by mosquito
A.Yellow fever
B. Q fever
C. Filaria
D. Dengue


18. ___ is a Selective β2 receptor blocker
A. Salbutamol
B. Butoxamine
C. Atenolol
D. Dobutamine


19. Xanthine alkaloids acts as
A. β lactamase inhibitor
B. GABA release inhibitor
C. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D. 5 - HT releasing agent



20 Which of the following is used in treatment of myasthenia gravis
A. Physostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Diazepam


21. _____ is Selective arterial vasodilator
A. Minoxidil        
B. Diazoxide
C. Hydralazine
D. Losartan


22. _____ is used as anticonvulsant
A. Pentobarbitone
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Cyclobarbitone
D. Barbitone


23. The shoulder of the cylinder of CO2 is painted
A. Blue
B. White
C. Black
D. Grey


24. Which of these substances is used as anticonvulsant
A. Sodium citrate
B. NaCl
C. Sodium peroxide
D. Hydrogen peroxide


25. Which one is used in radiation sterilization
A. X rays
B. β rays
C. γ rays
D. Uv rays


26. Which of the following can be used for counteraction for poisoning caused  
       by organophosphorus compounds
A. Naloxone
B. Pethidine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Charcoal


27. Which one of the following is a genetically determined adverse drug
       reaction
A. Addiction
B. Carcinogenicity
C. Drug induced lupus syndrome
D. Idiosyncrasy


28. Ambulatory patients are
A. Required to admit in the ward for treatment
B. Required to go home after taking treatment in OPD
C. Require emergency treatment
D. None of the above

29. In a drug store, the expiry dated drug formulation are called
A. Scrap items
B. Obsolete items
C. Surplus items
D. Dormant materials


30. Phenobarbitone is
A. Short acting barbiturates
B. Intermediate acting barbiturates
C. Long acting barbiturates
D. None of the above


31. District opium officer appoints  one cultivator as
A. Durg inspector
B.Lambardar
C.Narcotic commissioner
D. Executive commissioner


32. Under which section of indian Penal Code the drug inspector are  
      appointed
A. Section 23
B. Section 22
C. Section 21
D. Section 17



33. Which of the following schedule gives standards mechanical   
       contraceptives
A. Schedule C
B. Schedule D
C. Schedule F
D. Schedule R


34. The Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted every ____ years
A. 10 years
B. 5 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year


35. The Ointment base of mineral origin is
A. Olive oil
B. Cottonseed oil
C. Castor oil
D. Paraffin wax


36. Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis can be prevented by administration
      of
A. Anticonvulsant
B. Anti inflammatory agents
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12


37. Which of the following bone have no marrow cavity
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Ulna
D. None of above


 38. Which of the following is the function of plasma Proteins
A. Regulation of blood volume
B. Regulation of blood pressure
C. Helps in Coagulation process
D. All of the above


39. Diaphragm is a
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Bone cavity
D. Artery


40. Digitalis is given to the patients suffering from
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Left Ventricle failure
C. Atrial flutter
D. All of above


41. Naloxone is a morphine
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Mixed agonist and antagonist
D. All of above


42. Colour Index indicate
A. Relative amount of WBC present per cmm of blood
B. Relative amount of haemoglobin present in single RBC
C. Relative amount of haemoglobin present in 100 WBC
D. Relative amount of RBC present per cmm of blood


43. _____ is a major lipid constituent of the cell membrane
A. Phospholipid
B. Glycolipids
C. Cholesterol
D. Fatty acid


44. Clofibrate reduces the
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Elevated triglyceride level
D. Fever


45. Combined Umbelliferone test is positive for ____
A. Nutmeg
B. Asafoetida
C. Tolu balsam
D. Guggul


46. _____ is botanical source of Indian senna
A. Dried leaflets of Cassia angustifolia
B. Dried leaflets of Cassia acutifolia
C. Dried leaflets of Cassia auricularia
D. Dried leaflets of Cassia obovata


47. Which oil is a natural source of Vitamin A
A. Cod liver oil
B. Hydnocarpus
C. Castor oil
D. Shark liver oil


48. Which bark drug is used as cardiotonic
A. Ashoka
B. Cinnamon
C. Arjuna
D. Pterocarpus


49. Keller Killiani test is specified for
A. Anthraquinone glycosides
B. Cardiac glycosides
C. Saponins
D. Flavonoids


50. Tetracycline should not be given with
A. Milk
B. Aluminium hydroxide
C. Beet root
D. All of the above


51. Sodium metal is stored in
A. Well closed container
B. Kerosene
C. Wax
D. Methanol


52. Sodium fluoride is used to cure
A. Inflammation of mouth
B. Bacterial infection
C. Acidity
D. Dental carries


53. _____ is used for treating dandruff
A. Selenium sulphide
B. Sulphur
C. Yellow mercuric oxide
D. Titanium dioxide


54. CO2 is used as
A. Antacid
B. Acidifier
C. Buffer
D. Respiratory stimulant


55. Which of the following conditions is not associated with ischaemic heart
      disease
A. Angina pectoris
B. Hypertension
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Congestive heart disease



56. Mordant black is used as an indicator in the titration of
A. Calcium lactate
B. Sodium acetate
C. Ammonium chloride
D. Hydrogen peroxide


57. The plasticizer used in coating solution is
A. Polyethylene glycol
B. Castor oil
C. Propylene glycol
D. All of the above


58. Which one of the following is used vulcanizing agent for rubber
A. ZnO
B. Sulphur
C. CaCO3
D. Zinc sulphate


59. ______ sterilise talcum powder most effectively
A. Dry heat
B. Autoclaving
C. Gaseous sterilization
D. Freeze drying


60. The formation of wings or ragged extending edges about periphery of the   
       tablet is called
A. Mottling
B. Picking
C. Whiskering
D. Capping


61. The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted by the ____
A. Central government
B. State government
C. Parliament
D. President


62. “Herapathite” is formed in incompatibility of
A. Alkaloidal salt with alkaline substances
B. Alkaloidal salt with soluble barbiturate
C. Alkaloidal salt with soluble iodides
D. Liquorice liquid extract


63. The famous brand “ENO” is an example of
A. Effervescent granules
B. Dry sealed sachets
C. Tablet triturate
D. Powder


64. “Zephiran” is a ______ surfactant
A. Anionic
B. Cationic
C. Non-ionic
D. Ampholytics


65. Butylated hydroxyl toluene is used as
A. an antibacterial
B. an antioxidant
C. a suspending agent
D. a coloring agent


66. Glycerine suppositories containing 92% glycerine are solidified by  
       addition of
A. White wax
B. Stearic acid
C. Sodium stearate
D. PEG 4000


67. Who publish the Indian Pharmacopoeia
A. Central Governor
B. Central Drug Laboratory
C. Ministry of Health and Family welfare
D. Central Indian Pharmacopoeal Laboratory


68. The lead acetate cotton wool is used in the limit test for arsenic to
A. Make the arsine gas
B. Develop the yellow colour
C. Trap the H2S gas
D. None


69. Washing soda is common name for
A. NaHCO3
B. Na2CO3
C. K2CO3
D. NaOH


70. ____is known as Milk of magnesia
A. Suspension of Mg (OH)2
B. Suspension of MgO
C. Suspension of MgCO3
D. Suspension of Milk and MgO




Thursday, 10 January 2019

ESIC Pharmacist Exam Question Paper 2019 : MCQ - 5



Q.61 Which of the following is used reference in Electron Spin Resonance?
a) Tetra methyl silane 
b) Dimethyl formamide 
c) Di hidro phenyl ……ziricon (DPPH)
d) Trimethyl silane

Q.62 What is full form of ICH
a) International Council of Hormone 
b) Indian Conference of Harmonization
c) International conference of Harmonization 
d) International conference of humanity

Q.63 Which of the following is not related to ICH guideline?
a) Quality 
b) Cost 
c) Efficacy 
d) Potency

Q.64 Pertusis potency is standardized by
a) 3+3 assay 
b) Factorial assay 
c) Potency is determined by ELISA Test
d) Potency is determined in fowl

Q.65 For Cancer cell line culture a HAT nutrient media is required. What is HAT?
a) Hypoxanthine, Amthopterin, Thymidine 
b) Hydroxyuracil, Aminoacid, Thymidine
c) Hypoxanthine, Aminopterin, Thymine 
d) Hypoxanthine, Amthopterin, Thymine

Q.66 Which of the following does not contain mitochondria?
a) Flatten fungi 
b) Bacteria 
c) Protozoa 
d) Yeast

Q.67 Which one of the following is mechanism of Ranitidine?
a) Prostaglandin release 
b) Stimulate gastrin release 
c) Stimulate histamine release
d) Inhibit gastric acid secretion

Q.68 Which of the following is side effect of Cimetidine?
a) Diarrhea 
b) Constipation 
c) Inhibition of hepatic enzyme 
d) none of these

Q.69 Which of the following ion is involved spore formation ?
a) Fe2+ 
b) Fe3+ 
c) Zn2+ 
d) Ca2+

Q.70 Southren blot is used for sequencing of neucleotide in probe for
a) Hybridization of DNA molecule 
b) Hybridization of Protein molecule
c) Hybridization of RNA molecule 
d) Hybridization of Glycoside molecule

Q.71 Fluted bottles are used to pack
a) Syrup 
b) Ointment 
c) Linctus 
d) Mouth washes

Q.72 Which of the following is used in scintillation detector ?
a) Sodium bromide 
b) Naphthlene 
c) Anthracene 
d) Lead sulphate

Q.73 Which of the following is incorrect about Innate Immunity?
a) Non specific 
b) Invade Foreign microorganism 
c) provide immunity which is not affected by infection 
d) Give active immunity

Q.74 Black fluid is
a) Homogenous coaltar acid solution 
b) Suspension of activated charcoal 
c) Cresol with soap solution 
d) Non of these

Q.75 Restriction endonuclease is used in recombinant DNA technology in …………reaction
a) Type I 
b) Type II 
c) Type III 
d) Type III

Q.76 What is the weight of rectal suppository?
a) 3-5 g 
b) 4 g 
c) 2 g 
d) 6 g

Q.77 Fusogen used in hybridoma of monoclonal Antibodies
a) Polyethylene glycol 
b) Tweeen 40 
c) SDS 
d) Tween 80

Q.78 Prophase generation in DNA ligase
a) Ï• T4 bacteriophase 
b) Virus 
c) Bacteria 
d) Fungi



Q.79 Engulfment of memberanous organ is done with
a) Lysosome 
b) Endoplasmic reticulum 
c) Mesosome 
d) Golgi apparatus


Q.80 Which of the following release cytolytic T4 prolierating cells that is used in cancer
a) IL1 
b) IL6 
c) IL8 
d) IL2




Answer :





61 c
62 c
63 b
64 c
65 a
66 b
67 d
68 c
69 d
70 a
71 d
72 d
73 c
74 a
75 b
76 c
77 a
78 a
79 c
80 d